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MCQ Prev Papers 2009 UPSC Prelims Political Science Degrees Level Quiz

MCQ Prev Papers 2009 UPSC Prelims Political Science Degrees Level Quiz

MCQ prev papers 2009 UPSC Prelims political science degrees Level Quiz

61. Which one of the following was not identified by Almond as a stage of conversion process of a political system?
(a) Interest articulation
(b) Interest aggregation
(c) Political recruitment
(d) Rule adjudication

62. Consider the following political systems:

1. Czech Republic
2. Malaysia
3. South Africa
4. Sri Lanka
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above opting to a sustained competitive electoral democracy?
(a) 2-4-3-1
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 4-2-1-3
(d) 4-1-2-3
63. Consider the following statements:

The classification of authoritarian systems made by Almond and Powell includes
1. radical and conservative totalitarian
2. pre-mobilized authoritarian and pre-mobilized democratic
3. conservative and modernizing authoritarian
4. secularized City-States and pyramidal systems which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b)2 and 4
(c) l and 4
(d) l and 3
64. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I List II
(Institution/Unit of Government) (Country associated)
A. Laender 1. France
B. Procuratorates 2. China
C. Privy Council 3. Great Britain
D. Commissions de modernization 4. German Federal Republic
Code
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 3 2 1
(d) 4 2 3 1

65. In the US House of Representatives, the second reading of a Bill is undertaken in which one of the following Committees?
(a) Select Committee -
(b) Standing Committee
(c) Conference Committee
(d) Committee of the Whole House

66. When the Senate of the United States sits for a trial for impeachment of the US President, the House is presided over by the
(a) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court.
(b) President of the House.
(c) Vice-President of the United States.
(d)Senator representing the largest province of the United States.

67. In several States of US, the Jim Crow Legislation was responsible for
(a) segregation of different communities.
(b) reparations for previously segregated communities.
(c) common schools for blacks and whites.
(d) ban of civil rights movement.

68. The final outcome of the French presidential election is on the completion of (run of election) second ballot among
(a) all the candidates.
(b) top two candidates.
(c) top three candidates.
(d) top four candidates.

69. During the cultural revolution in China, public security organs known as workers provost corps were created for which of the following?
1. Dealing with counter-revolutionary activities
2. Keeping surveillance over the activities of the Red Guard
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

70. The National Assembly of South Africa, by a resolution adopted with a supporting vote of at least two-thirds of
its members, can remove the President from the office on which of the following grounds?
1. Serious violation of the Constitution or the Law
2. Serious misconduct
3. Moral corruption
4. Inability to perform the functions of the office
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

71. Which of the following are included in the Right to Privacy under the Constitution of South Africa?
Right not to have
1. person or home searched.
2. property searched.
3. possession seized.
4. privacy of their communication infringed.
Select the correct-answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1,2 and 3
(c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

72. Consider the following statements:
1. Interest aggregation is the activity in which the political demands of individuals and groups are combined into policy programmes.
2. Large nations usually develop more specialized organizations for the specific purpose or aggregation interests and resources behind a policy.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

73. public institutions may not cope with the expansion of democratic participation leading to political decay. Which one of the following scholars draws attention to such a consequence?
(a) Rajni Kothari
(b) Samuel Huntington
(c) Robert Dahl
(d)David Held
74. Who among the following argues that fault lines of civilizations are the breeding grounds of conflict in 21st Century?
(a) Francis Fukuyama
(b) Samuel Huntington
(c) Henry Kissinger
(d) Sanjay Subramaniam
75. Which one of the following theories considers democracy not as a government of the people but as ‘the iron law of oligarchy’?
(a) The Pluralist
(c) The Elitist
(b) The Marxist
(d) The Idealist

76. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Theory of democracy) List II (Champion)
A. Elite theory 1. C.B. MacPherson
B. Pluralist theory 2. Robert Nozick
C. Radical theory 3. Vilfredo Pareto
D. Neo-liberal theory 4. Robert DahI
Code A B C D
(a) 2 4 1 3
(b) 2 1 4 3
(c) 3 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 2

77. With which one of the following is the expression ‘gift of grace’ associated?
(a) Legal-rational authority
(b) Traditional authority
(c) Charismatic authority
(d) Autocractic authority

78. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Exponent) List II (Theory)
A Eva Balfour 1. Stages of development
B. WW Rostow 2. Centre-periphery theory
C. A.G. Frank 3. Environmental theory
D. SamirAmin 4. Development of underdevelopment
5. Sustainable development
Code A B C D
(a) 5 1 4 2
(b) 3 4 1 5
(c) 5 4 1 2
(d) 3 1 4 5

79. The old institutional approach to the study of political and government systems lays emphasis on
(a) the study of formal aspects of government and politics.
(b) finding out principles underlying all political activities.
(c) the search for regularities and for making generalizations. -
(d) transcendental ideals embodying different views of ‘what ought to be’.

80. Which of the following best perform the function of interest articulation in a political system?
1. Trade unions and ethnic associations
2. Organizations of businessmen and civic groups
3. Judiciary and law-making institutions
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a)1,2 and 3
(b)2 and 3
(c) 1 and 2 only
(d) 1 only
81. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Approach and theory) List II (Political scientist associated with)
A. Structural-Functional approach 1. David Easton
B. Communication theory 2. Karl Deutsch
C. General System theory 3. Antony Downs
D. Rational Choice 4. Gabriel Almond
Code A B C D
(a) 3 1 2 4
(b) 3 2 1 4
(c) 4 1 2 3
(d) 4 2 1 3

82. According to Gabriel Almond, which of the following arethe basic characteristics of a system?
1. Comprehensiveness and interdependence
2. Interdependence and existence of boundaries
3. Existence of boundaries and allocation of values
4. Allocation of values and goal attainment
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 3
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 4
(d) 1 and 2

83. Who among the following has coined the term power elite?
(a) Robert Dahl
(b) C. Wright Mills
(c) Karl Marx
(d) V. Pareto

84. Which one of the following Committees/Commissions prepared the ground-work for the communal award granting separate representation to depressed classes in India?
(a) Southborough Committee
(b) Simon Commission
(c) Nehru Committee
(d) Lothian Committee

85. Consider the following statements:
1. In the Hind Swaraj, Mahatma Gandhi formulates a conception of good life for the individual as well as the society
2. The Hind Swaraj was the outcome of the experience of Gandhi’s prolonged struggle against Colonial Raj in India.

Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

86. Which one of the following was the first countrywide pressure group of the organized Indian working class?
(a) All India Trade Union Congress
(b) Indian National Trade Union Congress
(c) Indian Mining Federation
(d) Hind Mazdoor Sabha

87. Consider the following statements:
The charge of violation of the Constitution by the President of India for his impeachment cannot be preferred by a House unless
1. a resolution containing the proposal is moved after a seven days’ notice in writing signed by not less than 1/4th of the total number of the members of that House.
2. the resolution is passed by a majority of not less than 2/3rd of the total membership of that House.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

88. Which one of the following is a Constitutional Body?
(a) National Commission for Scheduled Tribes
(b) National Commission for Minorities
(c) National Commission for Women
(d) Planning Commission

99. Under the Citizenship Act, 1955, by which of the
following ways can a person become a citizen of India?
1. By birth
2, By descent
3. By registration
4. By nationalization
5, By incorporation of territory
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
(b)1 and 2
(c) 1,2,3 and 5
(d) 3,4 and 5

90. Which of the following are Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen according to Article 51-A of the Constitution?
1. To believe in socialism, secularism and democracy
2. To abide by the Constitution and respect the National Flag and the National Anthem
3. To protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
4. To preserve the rich heritage of the country’s composite culture
5. To help the poor and weaker sections of the society Code Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 3, 4 and 5
(d) 1,4 and 5

91. To whom does the Chairperson of every Metropolitan Planning Committee forward the development plan, as recommended by such a Committee?
(a) The Planning Commission
(b) The Finance Minister, Government of India
(c) The Urban Development Minister, Government of India
(d)The Government of the State

92. Under which of the following regimes was the Inter-State Council (ISC) set-up?
(a) Congress Government in 1975
(b) Janta Government in 1978
(c) Janta Dal led Government in 1990
(d) United Front Government in 1990

93. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
Content: Schedule in the Constitution of India
(a) Languages : Eighth Schedule
(b) The forms of oaths of affirmations : Second Schedule
(c) Allocation of seats in the Council of States : Fourth Schedule
(d) Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection: Tenth Schedule

94. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List 1(Provision) List II (Provided as)
A. Taxes belonging to the Union exclusively 1. Sales tax
B. Taxes belonging to the State exclusively 2. Customs
C. Duties levied by the Union butcollected and appropriated by the States 3.Excise duties on medicinal preparation
ID. Duties levied as well as collected by the Union but assigned to the State 4.Duties on succession to property other than agricultural land

Code
A B C D
(a) 4 3 1 2
(b) 1 3 4 2
(c) 3 1 4 2
(d) 1 3 2 4

95. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 64 and 89(1) of the Constitution of India provide that the Vice-President of India shall be Ex-officio Chairman of the Council of States and shall not hold any other office of profit.
2. There is no such office as that of the Vice-President of India in other parliamentary systems of Governments in Commonwealth countries.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2
96. Consider the following statements:
1. The President nominates twelve members of the Rajya Sabha as the members of the Council of Ministers.
2. The President has absolute power to appoint and remove the Chairman and members of statutory bodies at his discretion.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

97. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India gives the right to Ministers and Attorney-General to speak in or to take part in the proceedings of either House?
(a) Article 84
(b)Article 85
(c) Article 87
(d)Article 88

98. Which one of the following is not associated with the duties of the Prime Minister?
(a) To communicate to the President all decisions of the Council of Ministers
(b) To recommend to the President about the decision that a particular Bill may be certified as Money Bill
(c) To furnish such information relating to the administration of the affairs of the Union and proposals for Legislations as the President may call for
(d)If the President so requires, to submit for the consideration of Council of Ministers any matter on which a decision has been taken by a Minister which has not been considered by the Council

99. According to the Constitution of India, which of the following statement(s) is/are not correct with regard to Jammu and Kashniir (J & K)?
1. Provisions of Article 368 cannot be extended to J & K unless it is extended by an order of the President under Article 370(1).
2. No alteration of the boundaries of the State without the consent of the Legislature of the State of J & K.
3. The Union has power to make a proclamation of financial emergency with respect in the State of J & K under Article 360.
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1 and 3

100. Consider the following statements:
1. Article 86(1) of the Constitution provides that the President may address either House of Parliament or both the Houses assembled together.
2. The provision for Address by the Head of State to Parliament was made for the first time under the Government of India Act, 1935.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

101. Consider the following statements with respect to the 73rd Constitutional Amendment:
1. It envisages the Gram Sabha as the foundation of the panchayati Raj System.
2. It ensures that Panchayat bodies will have an assured duration of five years.
3. It stipulates that the Chairperson of a Panchayat shall be elected by and from amongst the elected members thereof.
4. It has reserved 33 per cent of the seats to Other Backward Classes in Panchyati Raj Institutions.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
(a) 1, 2, 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c)2, 3 and 4
(d)1 and4

102. Which of the following is/are correct with respect to the 73rd Amendment to the Constitution of India?
1. Constitutional status to Panchayats
2. Reservation of seats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes or, as the case may be, the Scheduled Tribes
3. Providing permanent structures for district planning Select the correct answer under the code given below:
Code:
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 only
(c) 2 only
(d) 3 only

103. Consider the following statements:
1. The representation of women in the Lok Sabha (up to 14th) has never exceeded 10 per cent of the total strength.
2. The maximum strength of the Lok Sabha envisaged by the Constitution is 552, which is made up by election of up to 530 members to represent the States, up to 20 members to represent the Union Territories and not more than two members of the Anglo-Indian Community to be nominated by the President.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

104. The Supreme Court has increased the ambit of the Right to life (Article 21) to include which of the following?
1. Right to life includes the Right to live with dignity
2. Right to life includes the Right to livelihood
3. Right to life includes .the Right to receive minimum wages
4. Right to life includes the Right to guaranteed employment for 100 days in a year
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
Code:
(a) 4 only
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 1, 2 and 3
(d) 1,2,3 and 4

105. Article 371(A) provides for special provisions with respect to which of the following States?
(a) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Nagaland
(d) Assam

106. Consider the following countries
1. Sri Lanka
2. Malaysia
3. Australia
4. Canada
Which of the above countries has/have formally declared itself/ themselves as multi-cultural?
(a) 2, 3 and 4
(b) 2 only
(c) 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

107. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists
List I(Country) List II(Party)
A. Egypt 1.National Democratic Party
B.Nigeria 2.People’s Democratic Party
C. Sri Lanka 3.United National Party
D. Syria 4.Baath Party

Code
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 1 3 2 4
(c) 4 2 3 1
(d) 4 3 2 1

108. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Movement) List II (Person)
A. Chipko Movement 1. Sunderlal Bahuguna
B. Narmada Bachao Andolan 2. Medha Patkar
C. Jharkhand Movement 3. Jaipal Singh
D. Bandhua Mukti Morcha 4. Swami Agnivesh
Code
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1

109. Which one of the following is not a part of the objectives of the Science and Technology Policy 2003?
(a) To ensure food, agricultural, nutritional, environmental, water, health and energy security of the people on a sustainable basis
(b) Optimal utilization of existing physical and knowledge resources
(c) Restricting brain drain
(d) Development of innovative technologies

110. According to Census 2001, which of the following sets of States/Union Territories has the highest literacy rate in India?
(a) Kerala-Mizoram-Himachal Pradesh-Maharashtra
(b) Mizoram-Manipur-Tamil Nadu-Maharashtra
(c) Tamil Nadu-Andhra Pradesh-Karnataka-Goa
(d) Kerala-Mizoram-Lakshadweep-Goa

111. What is the correct sequence of States in terms of descending order of percentage of Scheduled Castes’ population to the total population of the concerned State?
(a) Punjab-Uttar Pradesh-Maharashtra
(b) Tamil Nadu-West Bengal-Uttar Pradesh
(c) Uttar Pradesh-Karnataka-Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh Bengal-Kerala

112. Consider the following International Women’s Conferences:
1. Nairobi
2. Mexico
3. Copenhagen
4. Beijing
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above Conferences?
(a) 3-2-4-1
(b) 2-1-3-4
(c) 4-3-1-2
(d) 2-3-1-4

113. Consider the following developments
1. Oursourcing of services
2. Shrinking of geographical distance
3. Rise of ethnic identity
4. Emergence of regional associations
Which of the above developments are associated with globalization?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c)1,3 and 4
(d)1,2,3 and 4

114. Match List I with List II and select the correct answer using the code given below the lists:
List I (Form of citizen interestarticulation) List II(Scope of interest)
A.Voting in elections 1. Highly expressive support for specific interests
B. Informal group, social movement 2. Normally deals with specific, personal problem
C.Direct contact 3. Collective action focused on a common interest
d. Protest activity 4. Broad, collective decision on government leaders and their programmes
Code
A B C D
(a) 1 2 3 4
(b) 4 3 2 1
(c) 1 3 2 4
(d) 4 2 3 1

115. Which of the following is/are the major theme(s) of New International Economic Order (NIEO)
1. Self-reliance
2. Globalization and liberalization
Code:
Select the correct answer using the code given below:
(a) 1 only
(b) 2 only
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

116. Consider the following statements:
The New Social Movements
1. do not seek ‘total’ change.
2. are not class based.
3. do not believe in direct action.
Which of the statement(s) given above is/are correct?
(a) 2 and 3
(b) 1 and 2
(c) 3 only
(d) 1, 2 and 3

117. Which one of the following political theorists finds the concept of ‘imagined community’ inadequate to describe nationalism in post-colonial societies?
(a) Partha Chatrerjee
(b) MR. Mehta
(c) Hans Cohn
(d) Ernest Gellner

118. Consider the following events:
1. OPEC’s Oil Embargo.
2. Accession of UK, Ireland and Denmark to the European Economic Community (EEC)
3. Demand for a New International Economic Order by developing countries in the General Assembly of the United Nations
4. Suez Crisis
What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events?
(a) 1-2-3-4
(b) 2-3-4-1
(c) 4-2-1-3
(d) 4-3-2-1

119. The zero-sum game as employed by the supporters of the game theory assumes that
(a) the loss of one player is the gain of the other.
(b)the loss of one player is the loss of the other as well.
(c) the gain or the loss of one player has nothing to do with the gain or the loss of the other.
(d)the gain of one player is the gain of the other player.

120. Which one of the following is not correct with regard to ethnicity and nationalism?
(a) Both trace common bonds across their members
(b) Both distinguish between we and they
(c) There is unanimity among scholars today that both are imagined relations
(d)While nationalism tends towards Nation State, ethnicity seeks the recognition of its distinct identity

Answers:

61 d
62 c
63 d
64 d
65 d
66 a
67 a
68 b
69 a
70 b
71 c
72 c
73 b
74 b
75 c
76 c
77 c
78 a
79 a
80 c
81 d
82 d
83 b
84 b
85 a
86 a
87 b
88 a
89 c
90 b
91 d
92 c
93 b
94 b
95 c
96 a
97 d
98 b
99 c
100 c
101 d
102 a
103 c
104 b
105 c
106 c
107 a
108 a
109 c
110 d
111 a
112 d
113 a
114 b
115 d
116 b
117 a
118 c
119 a
120 c





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21 Jan, 2018, 02:26:33 AM